Full Playlist: ugc net geography
Paper
– I
Note :
• This
paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate
is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case
more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty
(50) questions will
be evaluated.
1. Which is the
main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already
known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover
new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
2. Sampling error
decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in
sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
3. The principles
of fundamental research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied
research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research
4. Users who use
media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
5. Classroom
communication can be described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse
6. Ideological
codes shape our collective
(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C)
Consumptions
(D)
Creations
7. In
communication, myths have power, but are
(A) uncultural.
(B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise.
(D) unpreferred.
8. The first
multi-lingual news agency of India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan
Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
9. Organisational
communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group
communication.
(D) mass communication.
10. If two
propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is
the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A)
Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
11. Ananya and
Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as
Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow
Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in
Hindi. Who can speak and follow
English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D)
Krishna
12. A stipulative
definition may be said to be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes
false
(D) Neither true
nor false
13. When the
conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the
argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive
argument
(D) Analogical argument
14. Saturn and Mars
are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the
Sun as the
Earth does. So those planets are
inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is
contained in the above passage ?
(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
(C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical
15. Given below are
two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes.
Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises :
(i) All saints are religious.
(major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints.
(minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest
persons are religious.
(D)
All religious persons are honest
Following table
provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different
regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer
questions from 16 to 19 based on this table.
16. Find out the
region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals
in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North
America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
17. Which of the
following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign
tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
18. Find out the
region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign
tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western
Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia
19. Identify the
region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the
growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D)
East Asia
20. The
post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information
society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
21. The initial
efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military
purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
22. Internal
communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
23. Virtual reality
provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C)
Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
24. The first
virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
25. Arrange the
following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code
given below :
(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i),
(iii), (iv)
(D)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
26. Which one of the
following continents is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
27. “Women are
closer to nature than men.” What kind of perspective is this ?
(A) Realist
(B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist
(D) Deep ecology
28. Which one of the
following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests ?
(A) Their
ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the
oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate
surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the
biological diversity of the planet.
29. The most
comprehensive approach to address the problems of man environment interaction
is one of the
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation
Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth
Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth
Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed
Development Approach
30. The major source
of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport
sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
31. In a fuel cell
driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C)
LPG
(D)
CNG
32. Which one of the
following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance
Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher
Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of
Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and
Accreditation Council (NAAC)
33. Which of the
following statements are correct about the National Assessment and
Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous
institution.
2. It is tasked with the
responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
34. The power of the
Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls
under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original
Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
35. Which of the
following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories
in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative
Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High
Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital
of two States.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
36. Which of the
following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?
1. The Central Information
Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information
Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President
of India.
3. The Commission can impose a
penalty upto a maximum of ` 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
37. Who among the
following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across
267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre
for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for
Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
38. In certain code
TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP
(B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP
(D) None of these
39. A person has to
buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is ` 7/-
whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-. If the
person has ` 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C)
3
(D)
4
40. A man pointing
to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. The
lady is related to
the man as
(A) Mother’s sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of
Father-in-law
41. In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how
many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
42. The mean marks
obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the
students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A) 85
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 65
43. Anil is twice as
old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The
present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
44. Which of the
following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
45. The population information
is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D)
Statistics
Read the
following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :
Heritage conservation practices
improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the
Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with
UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126
member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000
professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise.
In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global
conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to
the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention,
and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to
imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritising heritage
with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no
less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys
indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over
60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the
small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only
about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe
shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions.
It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream
research and engineering
institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing
funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real
challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts.
Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the
heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasise. The
effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The
first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound
development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity.
Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India,
and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been
acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter
for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength
for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green
building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and
conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices
campaign in future.
46. The outlook for
conservation heritage changed
(A) after the
establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and
Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the
specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO’s
assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to
protect the monuments.
47. The
inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members
to 126.
(B) imparting
training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in
conservation.
(D) its proactive role in
renovation and restoration.
48. Indian
conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the
Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental
organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent
investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness
for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of
India’s meaningful assistance.
49. As per the
surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected
monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected
monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent
(B) 11 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 13 percent
50. What should
India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant
budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and
training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to
provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made
part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the
codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii),
(iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
51. INTACH is known
for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form
of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art
and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art
and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and
Cultural Heritage
(D)
Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
52. While delivering
lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and
then continue.
(B) punish those causing
disturbance.
(C) motivate to
teach those causing disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is
happening in the class.
53. Effective
teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and
commitment.
(C) Teacher’s
making students learn and understand.
(D) Teacher’s liking for
professional excellence.
54. The most
appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification
of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
55. Arrange the
following teaching process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge
with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional
objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional
materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D)
(iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
56. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated
Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for
Engineering and Technology
(C) Central
Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated
Evaluation Techniques.
57. Teacher’s role
at higher education level is to
(A) provide information to
students.
(B) promote self
learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition
among students.
(D) help students to solve their
problems.
58. The Verstehen
School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German
Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
59. The sequential operations
in scientific research are
(A)
Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation,
Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation,
Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious
Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.
60. In sampling, the
lottery method is used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D)
Randomisation
GEOGRAPHY
Paper
– II
Note : This paper
contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks
each. All
questions
are compulsory.
1. Which of the
following processes is responsible for weathering of rocks in the Karst region
?
(A) Scree formation
(B) Carbonation
(C) Oxidation
(D) Hydrolysis
2. Match List – I
with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii i iii
3. Which one of
these glacial features is believed to have formed in the bed of a sub-glacial
stream ?
(A) An Esker
(B) A Morraine
(C) Drumlin
(D) Kame
4. Indian
Meteorological Department (IMD) has divided India into how many seismic zones ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
5. Bad-land
Topography is the product of the combined action of
(A) Wind and Glacier
(B) Wind and
Water
(C) Water and Glacier
(D) Water and Temperature
6. Increase in
temperature with increase in height is known as
(A) Lapse rate
(B) Adiabatic lapse rate
(C) Inversion of
temperature
(D) Normal rate
7. Identify the
correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall :
(A) Unsaturated air,
condensation, dew point, precipitation
(B) Dew point, condensation, unsaturated
air, precipitation
(C) Unsaturated
air, dew point, condensation, precipitation
(D) Dew point, precipitation, condensation,
unsaturated air
8. Read out the
following conditions :
1. Cloudy sky
2. Cold dry air
3. Strong winds
4. Long winter nights
Which of the above conditions promote
inversion of temperature ?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
9. The climate of
Southern Ganga plain in the Thornthwait classification is denoted by
(A) BA' W
(B) CA' W
(C) AA' W
(D) CW' W
10. When the wind is
deflected due to the rotation of earth it is known as
(A) Planetary wind
(B) Geostrophic
wind
(C) Accidental wind
(D)
Forced wind
11. Salinity in
water bodies increases with
(A) increase in
evaporation and decrease in admixture of fresh water.
(B) decrease in evaporation and
increase in admixture of fresh water.
(C) decrease in evaporation and
no change in admixture of fresh water.
(D) increase in evaporation and
increase in admixture of fresh water.
12. Given below are
two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R).
Select your answer from codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The salinity in
Dead Sea is very low.
Reason (R) : Dead Sea is
located in tropical dry climatic region, where evaporation is high,
precipitation is low and here drainage is internal.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are right.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is
wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) (A) is right, but (R) is
wrong.
13. Which one of the
following primary green house gases is not associated with global warming ?
(A) Water vapour
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Hydrogen
14. Match List – I
with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) i iv iii ii
15. Which one of the
following is a Taiga Biome ?
(A) Sub-Tropical Biome
(B) Sub-Arctic
Biome
(C) Savanna Biome
(D) Sub-Sahara Biome
16. Match the
following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes
given :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) ii iii i iv
17. Who among the
following defined Geography as Discovery of Predictive Patterns during
quantitative revolution period ?
(A) Haggett
(B) Harvey
(C) Stewart
(D) Bunge
18. In describing
the patterns and processes of spatial interaction, geographers are most
concerned with
(A)
Accessibility and Connectivity
(B) Density and Dispersion
(C) Diffusion and Pattern
(D) Pedestrian Cities
19. Who founded the
Humanistic School of Geography ?
(A) Wolpert
(B) Tuan
(C)
Kirk
(D)
Harv
20. Who amongst the
following correlated colour of ocean water and its salinity ?
(A) Ibn – Khaldun
(B) Al – Masudi
(C) Ibn – Sina
(D) Al – Maqdisi
21. “All history
must be treated geographically and all geography must be treated historically”
Who wrote this ?
(A) Herodotus
(B) Ratzel
(C) Blache
(D) Davis
22. Which school of
thoughts developed the Science of Astronomy ?
(A) Greeks
(B) Chinese
(C) Roman
(D) Arabs
23. Demographic
transition is a framework that explores the historical sequence of changes in
1. Fertility and migration
2. Mortality and age-structure
3. Mortality and migration
4. Age-structure and
sexcomposition
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4 are correct.
(B) 3 and 4 are correct.
(C) only 1 is correct.
(D) 1 and 2 are
correct.
24. Name the State
which employs the highest number of child labour in the country.
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Andhra
Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
25. India’s decadal
population growth rate has been continuously declining since
(A) 1971-81
(B) 1981-91
(C) 1991-2001
(D) 2001-2011
26. Diego Garcia is
an island in which of the following oceans ?
(A) Atlantic
(B) Pacific
(C) Indian
(D) Arctic
27. Read Assertion
(A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Urbanization is
a defining phenomenon of this century and the developing countries are at the
locus of this transformation.
Reason (R) : The urban shift
has happened in the last few decades largely due to rapid mega cities growth in
the developing countries.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) explains (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is
correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is
true.
28. Match List – I
with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) i ii iii iv
(D)
iv iii i ii
29. Marquette range
in U.S.A. is known for
(A) Uranium
(B) Copper
(C) Gold
(D) Iron ore
30. The location of
paper industries is highly influenced by which one of the following factors ?
(A) Availability
and nearness of raw material
(B) Nearness of market
(C) Availability of capital
(D) Transport connectivity
31. Which one of the
following is the largest volume of import commodities in India ?
(A) Raw materials
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Petroleum
& Lubricants
(D) Pearls and Precious stones
32. Kirkuk, one of
the most important oilfields in the world, is located in
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Russia
33. To which racial
groups the Eskimos belong to ?
(A) The Negroids
(B) The
Mongoloids
(C) The Caucasoids
(D) The Australoids
34. The concept of
‘Cultural landscape’ was promoted by
(A) Ratzel
(B) Anne Buttimer
(C) Carl Sauer
(D) Wilbur Zelinsky
35. Which one of the
following Islamic countries is predominantly of Shia sect ?
(A) Iraq
(B) Iran
(C) Pakistan
(D) Afghanistan
36. Who, among the
following, propounded the concept of compage ?
(A) Minshull
(B) Blache
(C) Whittlesey
(D) Isard
37. Organic Theory
of the State was propounded by
(A) Mackinder
(B) Ratzel
(C) Haushofer
(D) Isaiah Bawman
38. Quasi Federal
Form of Government is in
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Great Britain
(C) Russia
(D) India
39. Which of the
following was the earliest regional planning exercise in India ?
(A) National Capital Region Plan
(B) Dandakaranya Area Plan
(C) Damodar
Valley Project
(D) Bhakra-Nangal Project
40. Which of the
following is an incorrect pair?
(A) Utilitarian Planning –
Functional Planning
(B) Comprehensive Planning –
Integrated Planning
(C) Regional Planning – Spatial
Planning
(D) Sectoral
Planning – Co-ordinated Planning
41. Which one of the
following States has the longest coast line ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
42. In which of the
following States of India the concentration of laterite soils is higher ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Gujarat
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D)
Arunachal Pradesh
43. Given below are
two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R). Select your answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Laterite soils
are well developed in Kerala.
Reason (R) : Kerala receives
high rainfall during monsoon season.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R)
are correct and (R) explains (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is
false.
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is
correct.
(D) (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) does not explain (A).
44. Given below are
two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R). Select your answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Himalayan rivers
are perennial.
Reason (R) : The region gets
rainfall from the South West monsoon season only.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) explains (A).
(B) (A) and (R)
are correct, but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is
correct.
45. The ‘Valley of
Kashmir’ lies between which of the following ranges ?
(A) Pir-Panjal and Karakoram
range
(B) Pir-Panjal
and Zaskar range
(C) Zaskar and Ladakh range
(D) Sulaiman and Kirthar range
46. Which one of the
following regions has the highest proportion of agricultural land under
irrigation ?
(A)
Punjab-Haryana Plain
(B) Rajasthan-Gujarat Plain
(C) West Bengal Delta
(D) Uttar Pradesh-Bihar Plain
47. Consider the
following figures X and
Which of the following statement
is correct ?
(A) Fig. X is small scale and the
distance between A and B is 40 metres.
(B) Fig. Y is large scale and the
distance between C and D is 4 km.
(C) Fig. X is
large scale and Fig. Y is small scale. The distances between A & B and C
& D are 40 metres and 20 km respectively.
(D) Fig. X is large scale and
Fig. Y is small scale. The distance between A & B and C & D are equal.
48. If the variability
of rainfall is to be measured, which of the following techniques will be used ?
(A) Mean Deviation
(B) Standard Deviation
(C) Coefficient
of Variation
(D) Interquartile Range
49. Which of the
following is not a Quantitative Distribution Map ?
(A)
Choroschematic Map
(B) Isopleth Map
(C) Dot Map
(D) Choropleth Map
50. Occupational
structure of population in India at State level is best represented by
(A) Dot Method
(B) Isopleth
(C) Choropleth
(D)
Pie diagram
GEOGRAPHY
Paper
– III
Note : This paper
contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks
each.
All
questions
are compulsory.
1. The concept of
geosynclines was given by
(A) James Hall
and Dana
(B) Hang
(C) Holmes
(D) Steers
2. The Base Level
concept was postulated by
(A) James Hutton
(B) J.W. Powell
(C) W.M. Davis
(D) Walther Penck
3. Which of the
following is formed as a result of tectonic forces ?
(A) Hanging valley
(B) V-shaped valley
(C) Rift valley
(D) Blind valley
4. Match the List –
I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) iii iv ii i
5. “The present is
the key to the past.” This statement was made by
(A) W.M. Davis
(B) James Hutton
(C) Van Ritchthofen
(D) A. Penck
6. Which of the
following was a part of Lauratia ?
(A) Anatolian Plate
(B) Chinese
Plate
(C) Iranian Plate
(D) Agean Plate
7. Match List – I
with List – II and choose the correct answer using the given codes :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D)
ii iii i iv
8. When does an
escarpment appear ?
(A) When a land block moves
horizontally.
(B) When a land
block moves vertically.
(C) When a land block moves due
to water logging.
(D) When a land block moves due
to human intervention.
9. Identify
fluvio-glacial deposits from the following :
(A) Outwash
plain
(B) Flood plain
(C) Penne plain
(D) Pan plain
10. Migration from
developed to less developed region is called as
(A) Emigration
(B) Immigration
(C) Perverse
migration
(D) Reverse migration
11. “Space is
socially or culturally constructed” is the view under
(A) Logical positivism
(B) Behaviouralism
(C) Post
modernism
(D) Structuralism
12. A counter
clock-wise atmospheric circulation in the northern hemisphere is known as
(A) Pressure gradient
(B) Cyclone
(C) Anti-cyclone
(D) Tornado
13. The author of
the book ‘The Unstable Earth’ is
(A) Paschel
(B) Gilberk G.K.
(C) Mallot C.A.
(D) J.A. Steers
14. Which of the
following earthquake waves are most destructive ?
(A) S-waves
(B) P-waves
(C) R-waves
(D) L-waves
15. Mediterranean
climate is characterized by
(A) Dry summer
and Humid winter
(B) Humid summer and Dry winter
(C) Dry summer and Dry winter
(D) Humid summer with no winter
16. Insolation
reaches the earth surface in the form of
(A) Short waves
(B) Long waves
(C) Microwaves
(D) Lorenz curve
17. The range of
visible wave length on electromagnetic spectrum is
(A) 0.4 to 0.7
micrometres
(B) 0.7 to 15.0 micrometres
(C) 0.3 to 0.9 micrometres
(D) 0.3 to 15.0 micrometres
18. As per the
Koppen’s scheme the Bhwh type of climate is found in
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D)
Odisha
19. Cold dry wind
experienced particularly in winter along the eastern coast of Atlantic Ocean
and in Northern Italy is called
(A) Cyclone
(B) Boras
(C) Tornado
(D) Hurricane
20. The atmosphere
gets heated by which one of the following ?
(A) Direct rays of the sun
(B) Volcanic activity
(C) Burning of organic material
(D) Radiation from the earth
21. A tropical
cyclone was located 500 kms. South-West of Visakhapatnam. The cyclone first
moved 250 kms in North-West direction and then suddenly changed the direction
to the North-East. Which of the following
ports would raise the highest
danger signal ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Haldia
(C)
Visakhapatanam
(D) Tuticorin
22. Which one of the
following regions does not receive much rainfall during the South-West monsoon
season ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
Coast
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(D) Eastern Himalayas
23. In which type of
climate equiplanation process i.e., reduction of relief to a plain takes place
?
(A) Arid climate
(B) Cold climate
(C) Tropical climate
(D) Temperate climate
24. Winter rainfall
in North-Western part of India is mainly due to
(A) Western
disturbance
(B) North-East Monsoon
(C) North-West Monsoon
(D) Depression in the Bay of
Bengal
25. Which one of the
following phenomena shown in the sketch given below is correct ?
Choose the correct answer from
the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Normal lapse rate
(B) Upper surface inversion
(C) Lower surface inversion
(D) Environmental lapse rate
26. Given below are
two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A) : The eastern
coast of India is affected by tropical cyclones more than the western coast.
Reason (R) : Tropical cyclone
originates only in the Bay of Bengal.
In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
but (R) does not explain (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) explains (A).
(C) (A) is
correct but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false but (R) is correct
27. Match List – I
and List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) ii i iii iv
28. The temperature
that provides favourable ecological conditions for living coral reefs is
(A) less than 10 °C
(B) 10 °C to 15 °C
(C) 15 °C to 20 °C
(D) more than 20
°C
29. Match List – I
with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iv ii iii
30. Which among the
following has postulated the Subsidence Theory related to coral reef ?
(A) Dally
(B) Agassiz
(C) Darwin
(D) Davis
31. If a tide occurs
at a place at 6 p.m. when will be the next tide occur ?
(A) 00.13 a.m. of the next day
(B) 06.26 a.m.
of the next day
(C) 12.39 p.m. of the next day
(D) 06.52 p.m. of the next day
32. Match List – I
with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i
33. Which one of the
following ecosystem services is not a part of Millennium Ecosystem Assessment
(MA) report ?
(A) Provisioning
(B) Promoting
(C) Supportive
(D)
Regulating
34. Which one of the
following places in India the first bird-sanctuary was set up ?
(A) Vedanthangal
(B) Kundremukha
(C) Bannarghata
(D) Keoladeo
35. Given below are
two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R). Select your answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Physical factors
provide only a partial and deterministic explanation of geographical
distribution of population.
Reason (R) : Man is by no
means passive in his choice of areas for settlement and everywhere demonstrates
an ability to exercise some control over his environment.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and
(R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is
correct.
36. Which one of the
following indicates the principle of transport in Central Place Theory ?
(A) K3
(B) K4
(C) K7
(D) K9
37. Assertion
(A) : Post-industrial
city is largely characterised by horizontal expansion.
Reason (R) : Land prices are
high in the central city.
(A) Both (A) and
(R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
false.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is
false.
38. Match List – I
with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii i ii iv
39. Read Assertion
(A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Global urban
population is not uniformly distributed by location and nearly two-thirds is
relatively concentrated within low elevation coastal areas.
Reason (R) : Soil fertility
in the coastal areas caused concentration of rural settlements.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) explains (A).
(B) Both (A) and
(R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
false.
(D) (A) is false, but (A) is
true.
40. Which one of the
following stages of demographic transition model predicts “a-high birth but
a-low death rate” ?
(A) First stage
(B) Second stage
(C) Third stage
(D)
Late-second stage
41. Match the
following :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i
42. Which one of the
following is not an assumption or principle of the concentric zone model of
urban land case ?
(A) Cultural and social
heterogeneity of the population
(B) Transport is equally easy,
rapid and cheap in every direction within the city.
(C) None of
districts is attractive due to differences in terrain.
(D) There is a concentration of
heavy industry.
43. Who, amongst the
following, defined Geography as a chorological science ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Richthofen
(C) Hettner
(D) P.E. James
44. Who, amongst the
following, has propounded the concept of Time Space Geography ?
(A) Hagerstrand
(B) Haggett
(C) Johnston
(D) Harvey
45. Match the
following from the codes :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii i iii iv
46. Which one of the
following ports has been developed on a lagoon ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kochi
(D) Visakhapatnam
47. Truck farming is
associated with
(A) Vegetables
(B) Milk
(C) Cereals
(D) Poultry
48. The essential
feature of shifting cultivation is
(A) Rotation of crops
(B) Rotation of
fields
(C) Single cropping
(D) Use of plenty of fertilizers
49. What is the
common practice involved in shifting cultivation ?
(A) Use of sophisticated
machinery
(B) Large scale use of
fertilizers
(C) Utilization
of poor soils through ploughing / fallowing
(D)
Maximum use of animal power
50. Under the scope
of town planning in India is covered :
1. Urban renewal
2. Planning of urban amenities
and facilities
3. Building of new towns
4. Building of metropolitan
cities
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 are correct.
(B) only 1 is correct.
(C) 1, 2 and 3
are correct.
(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
51. Match the List –
I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) i ii iii iv
52. Match the List –
I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv iii i ii
53. Who has, amongst
the following geographers, defined Geography of Public Finance ‘who gets what, where,
and at what cost’ ?
(A) R.J. Chorley
(B) David Harvey
(C) P. Claval
(D) R.J. Bennett
54. Match the List –
I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv i iii ii
55. Which of the
following is not a supervised image classification technique ?
(A) Parallelopiped classifier
(B) Minimum distance to mean classifier
(C) Neural
network analysis
(D) Gaussian maximum likelihood classifier
56. A meteor is
(A) Comet without a tail
(B) Detached piece of an asteroid
(C) Tiny star
(D) Piece of
matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space
57. Which one of the
following tribes does not correctly matched ?
(A) Batwa and Congo Basin
(B) Ruwala and
Central Iran
(C) Inuit and Canada
(D) Yuklagir and Siberia
58. Which one of the
following regions witnessed the growth of mighty civilizations of Roman and
Greek ?
(A) Temperate region
(B) Savanna region
(C)
Mediterranean region
(D) Tundra region
59. Which of the
following is not considered a geographic pattern ?
(A) Centralized
(B) Distributive
(C) Linear
(D) Random
60. Machu Picchu of
Inca civilization is located in
(A) Argentina
(B) Brazil
(C) Columbia
(D) Peru
61. In 1919,
Mackinder renamed his ‘Pivot Area’ as ‘Heartland’ in famous book
(A) Foreign Affairs
(B) The Round World and the
Winning of the Peace
(C) The
Democratic Ideals and Reality
(D) World War and Geography
62. The objectives
behind building the planned city of Chandigarh were
1. To build a city of modern
India’s dreams.
2. To settle down refugees coming
to India after the partition.
3. To develop an attractive
tourist centre in Northwestern India.
4. To provide capital city to
Truncated Punjab.
Codes :
(A) 2 and 4 are correct.
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(C) 1, 2 and 4
are correct.
(D) only 4 is correct.
63. Which of the
following sentences is not a correct one ?
(A) Utilitarian planning is a functional
planning and it strives to achieve a supreme single specific goal.
(B) Sectoral
planning is a coordinated planning with planning in various sectors in an
integrated manner.
(C) Comprehensive planning has
also been used with implicit connotation of integrated planning of all elements
of a single activity.
(D) Town planning is an
expression of spatial planning of an urban system.
64. Several planned
cities have been developed in India after Independence. Which one of the
following is not a post-independence planned city ?
(A) Gandhinagar
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bhubaneshwar
65. Which one of the
following is not a measure of Central tendency ?
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Mean
deviation
(C) Median
(D) Mode
66. Which one of the
following Indian Remote Sensing Satellites, IRS-P4 is also known as
(A) Resourcesat
(B) Edusat
(C) Remotesat
(D) Oceansat
67. Which one of the
following States has recorded the lowest human development index ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
68. Which one of the
following group of States, which includes catchment area of Cauvery river basin
is correct ?
(A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala,
Pondicherry and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra
Pradesh and Pondicherry
(C) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Maharashtra and Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu,
Kerala, Karnataka and Pondicherry
69. Which one of the
following is a centrographic measure ?
(A) Geometric mean
(B) Arithmetic mean
(C) Mean centre
(D) Standard deviation
70. Match List – I
with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
71. Which one of the
following map scales is a large scale ?
(A) 1 : 250,000
(B) 1 : 25,000
(C) 1 : 500,000
(D) 1 : 50,000
72. Given below are
two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A) : The Raster
format data structure provides a greater computational efficiency.
Reason (R) : The Raster
format data is simple.
In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) explains (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is
correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is
correct.
73. An original map
has the RF–1/50,000 and R.F. of the new map will be 1/250,000. What is the
correct
proportion of
enlargement/reduction as given below ?
(A) Reduction
1/5
(B) Enlargement (5 times)
(C) Reduction 1/10
(D) Enlargement (10 times)
74. Which one of the
following values of correlation coefficient (r) is not correctly matched degree
of relationship ?
(A) + 0.99 High
(B) + 0.50 Moderate
(C) – 0.01 Very low
(D) – 0.99 Nil
75. In which of the
following year, IRS-1A was launched
(A) 1982
(B) 1987
(C) 1988
(D) 1990