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1. Which one of the
following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format
?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of
Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of
Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of
Electronics, New Delhi – Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall,
Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
2. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion
on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a
topic.
(C) a class at a college or a
university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief
intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique
for solving a specific problem.
3. A working
hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a
provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Read
the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :
The
Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble
structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered
garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by
549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living
quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local
merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad
were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the
tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is
used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s
popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the
Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).
Mumtaz
Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court
was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the
grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of
the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it
was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the
Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas
since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja,
Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing
cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands)
indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the
mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by
imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons
and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral
domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra
fort were constructed concurrently.
Work
on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much
of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly
celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was
virtually complete.
4. Marble
stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral
domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur
(B)
Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
5. The
popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A)
Shah Jahan
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D)
European travellers
6. Point
out the true statement from the following :
(A) Marble was not
used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is
non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C)
The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was
constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.
7. In
the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D)
Rauza-i-Munavvara
8. The
construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D.
(B) 1630 – 1643
A.D.
(C)
1632 – 1643 A.D.
(D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.
9. The
documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built,
known as
(A)
Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase
Deed
(D)
None of the above
10. In
the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological
order ?
(A) Communicator, Medium,
Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium,
Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C)
Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message,
Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
11. Bengal
Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie
Besant
(B)
James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
12. Press
censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C)
Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
13. Communication
via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is
termed as
(A)
Entertainment
(B)
Interactive communication
(C) Developmental
communication
(D) Communitarian
14. Classroom
communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B)
Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
15. ________
is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.
(A) Sympathy
(B)
Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
16. In a
certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(A)
UJHFS
(B) UHJSF
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSF
17. In a
certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once
against each of the other
teams. The number of
teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B)
10
(C) 12
(D) 14
18. The
missing number in the series: 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110
(B)
270
(C) 105
(D) 210
19. The
odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an
ascending order. The number at
6th position
is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C)
33
(D) 36
20. The
mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining
numbers is
(A) 30
(B)85/2
(C)170/3
(D)
110
21. If
the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase
by
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D)
50%
22. If
the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements
will be true. Choose the correct code given below :
(i) All men are
honest.
(ii) No men are
honest.
(iii) Some men are
not honest.
(iv) All men are
dishonest.
Codes
:
(A) (i), (ii) and
(iii)
(B)
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and
(iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and
(iv)
23. Choose
the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Bee – Honey, Cow –
Milk, Teacher – ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D)
Wisdom
24. P is
the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister
of S, how is Q related to T ?
(A) Wife
(B)
Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
25. A
definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring
emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B)
Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
26. Which
of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?
Statements
:
(i) Venn diagram is a
clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is
the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram
method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram
method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.
Codes
:
(A) (i), (ii) &
(iii)
(B)
(i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) &
(iv)
(D) (i), (iii) &
(iv)
27. Inductive
reasoning presupposes
(A) unity in human
nature
(B) integrity in
human nature
(C)
uniformity in human nature
(D) harmony in human
nature
Read the table below
and based on this table answer questions from 28 to 33 :
28. Which
of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area
under the total horticulture ?
(A) 2005–06 &
2006–07
(B) 2006–07 &
2008–09
(C) 2007–08 &
2008–09
(D)
2006–07 & 2007–08
29. Shares
of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture
are respectively :
(A)
1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1
percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1
percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2
percent
30. Which
of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during
2005-06 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C)
Flowers
(D) Total
horticulture
31. Find
out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10
percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits
(B)
Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total
horticulture
32. What
has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under
total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?
(A) 53 percent
(B)
68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
33. In
which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase ?
(A)
2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
34. ‘www’
stands for
(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C)
world wide web
(D) worth while web
35. A hard
disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B)
Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
36. A
computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine
language is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D)
Interpreter
37. A
Gigabyte is equal to
(A)
1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
38. A
Compiler is a software which converts
(A) characters to
bits
(B)
high level language to machine language
(C) machine language
to high level language
(D) words to bits
39. Virtual
memory is
(A) an extremely
large main memory.
(B) an extremely
large secondary memory.
(C)
an illusion of extremely large main memory.
(D) a type of memory
used in super computers.
40. The
phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is in the context of
(A) tragic event
related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions
of poor people.
(C)
degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
41. Kyoto
Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C)
Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
42. Which
of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of
surface ozone as a pollutant ?
(A)
Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and
Airconditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
43. The
smog in cities in India mainly consists of
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B)
Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur
and ozone
44. Which
of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause
damage to humans ?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic
eruptions
(D)
Droughts and Floods
45. The
percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India
is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C)
10-12%
(D) < 1%
46. In
which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education
in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved ?
(A)
OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Woman students
47. Which
one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants
Commission (UGC) ?
(A) It was
established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with
promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan
and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D)
It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
48. Consider
the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :
Statement
: Should India switch over to a two party system ?
Arguments
: (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will
limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I)
is strong.
(B) Only argument (II)
is strong.
(C)
Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the
arguments is strong.
49. Consider
the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :
Statement
: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections
?
Arguments
: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will
encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political
opponents.
(A)
Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument
(II) is strong.
(C) Both the
arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the
arguments is strong.
50. Which
of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court
of India ?
1. A Judge of the
Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office
during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be
suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed
for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
Codes
:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D)
1 and 4
51. In
the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The
Vice-President
(C)
The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet
Ministers
52. The
black-board can be utilised best by a teacher for
(A) putting the
matter of teaching in black and white
(B) making the
students attentive
(C)
writing the important and notable points
(D) highlighting the
teacher himself
53. Nowadays
the most effective mode of learning is
(A) self study
(B) face-to-face
learning
(C)
e-learning
(D)
blended learning
54. At
the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach
children better than men.
(B) know basic
content better than men.
(C) are available on
lower salaries.
(D)
can deal with children with love and affection.
55. Which
one is the highest order of learning ?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving
learning
(C) Stimulus-response
learning
(D)
Conditioned-reflex learning
56. A
person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over
students.
(B)
commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified
than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to
higher authorities.
57. “A
diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher
should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and
more in the class.
(C)
use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too
much in the class.
58. A
research paper
(A) is a compilation
of information on a topic.
(B) contains original
research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains
peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published
in more than one journal.
59. Which
one of the following belongs tothe category of good ‘research ethics’ ?
(A) Publishing the
same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges
the contributions
of other people in the
relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without
discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper
in return
for a favour even though the
colleague did not make a serious
contribution to the paper.
60. Which
of the following sampling methods is not based on probability ?
(A) Simple Random
Sampling
(B) Stratified
Sampling
(C)
Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling